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We consider G,D,A,E,B,F#,C# in sharps category(meaning these major scales contains sharps and no flats).
LikeWise F,Bb,Eb,Ab,Db,,Gb,Cb, in flats cateogry.
Why do we differentiate this?
What if someone instead of writing
Bb as Bb-C-D-Eb-E-Gb-Ab-Bb
Bb as Bb-C-D-D#-E-F#-G#-Bb
Whats the harm in it?
Is this made for the derivation of formulas that you showed in the video or it has some different reason?
Thanks & Regards,
you can’t have sharps and flats in the same key. It breaks the unity of the key. For one, if you used sharps instead, you would have to use them ALL the way through (A# B# C## D# E# F## G## A#). It makes more sense to stick with sharps and flats for each respective sharp and flat key signature
Sorry ..not convinced.. :(
You said if you use sharps then you will have to use sharps all over for that scale.
If so then if we use flats instead , you woul dhave to use them ALL the way through
(Bb Dbb,Ebb,Eb,Gbb,Abb,Bbb,Bb instead of the normal way of writing
(Bb C D Eb F G A Bb)
My question still remains:
Why so? why? whats the reason!
its just the way it is. it’s more legible and reasonable. Although the enharmonic notes are the same, the key of A# is not the same as Bb